Dogboy can you please clear up a couple of questions about RTG RJ's?
In the AWP thread you said that players betting bigger amounts have a proportionally better chance of hitting an RJ. So if one player is betting $1 and another $10 does that mean the player betting $10 has for example 15 times more chances of winning rather then 10? If this is the case are you able to indicate how much better the chances are on higher bets?
Heya,
The chance is entirely proportional, so a $10 bet has 10 times better chance to trigger the random than a $1 bet.
Say you are playing a 95% game with a RJ. At what point is the RTP determined? Is it at reset which is $1000 I think or (more likely) is it at a mid point amount say $3500 on the meter?
RTP is determined purely from the average trigger value, which is simply:
Reset value + increment (contribution to the jackpot per spin) * 1/trigger probability
This is based on a $1 bet, and any bet above or below that has a proportionately higher or lower chance to trigger.
i.e.: A 1c bet has 1/100 the trigger chance and a $10 bet has 10* the trigger chance.
So if, (numbers purely for example), a jackpot resets to $1,000, and has an increment of 0.5% per spin, with a 1 in 300,000 trigger chance (on a $1 bet), the average trigger value will be: $1,000 + 0.5% * 300,000 = $2,500 average trigger value
RTP is therefore the prize/probability of triggering that prize.
In this example: 2,500/300,000 = 0.83333%
The RTP for this a jackpot is effectively the same as receiving a scatter prize, in this case of of 2,500 (since this would be multiplied by total bet).
If you are playing a 95% game and the RJ is up to $8000 say then would that be boosting your theoretical RTP in the same way a progressive video poker game operates? I am assuming that $3500 = 95% RTP for the sake of argument.
Effectively that is true.
Unlike other prizes with a constant value, once a random moves beyond the average trigger value the reality is that RTP is effectively improved during play at such time.
Since the calculation of RTP would be based on (again using above example numbers only), a 2,500 prize, if a jackpot had grown to 8,000 and still had the same 300,000 trigger rate, this would add 1.83333% to the effective RTP (since total jackpot RTP would now be 8000/300,000).
If there are say five 95% seperate RJ games should you always play the one with the highest RJ? Or do different games have different cycles? I guess it would make sense to have a mixture of harder and easier RJ's just like you get higher and lower variance slots. I have seen linked RJ's that operate accross 4 slots say but are there single slot RJ's too? Having a mixture of single slot RJ's and linked RJ's would provide different variances I think.
TIA.
It can be a little hard to determine the best possible play, because games that have the newer Minor/Major versus those that have the single jackpot do have different increment and trigger probability values (which is necessary when moving from 1 jackpot to 2, in order not to blow out RTP).
Some games or sets of games may also have a different average trigger value, yet same RTP.
For example, using above number as a base:
If a game has a 1 in 600,000 trigger rate (instead of 1 in 300,000), and increment is shifted from 0.5% per spin to 0.6667% per spin, the RTP is still 0.833333%, but the average value of the trigger would now be $5,000.
It's best to use the guide of familiarity with the previous levels that a random has gone off at.
So if you know that a jackpot has grown beyond a point that seems usual for that game, it's likely above it's average trigger value (which it will be some of the time)
In fact, this would work out to 36.79% of the time, this being:
((1-(1/average spins to trigger))^average spins to trigger) in the above example
e.g.: ((1-(1/300,000))^300,000) = (0.99996667)^300,000 = 36.79%
The same is true no matter what the chance to trigger is, so a 1 in 600,000 would also see it go above average trigger value 36.79% of the time.
Woooof