Hi all,
So I have taken a bit of time off from actually playing my favourite slots and have looked more into the numbers and maths behind it, this is where I would like some input please.
Firstly,
I can walk into a UK High Street bookmakers and spin £100 inn seconds on a FOBy Roulette Machine.
How come I can, as we speak, only bet £5 a spin in a mainland casino on a slot machine and potentially win £10k (recent upgrade from £2 max bet for a jackpot of £4k)?
Now I know they are different games, and the max spin I game do on a bookmakers slots is £2, but the figures baffle me in terms of the relativity of it all.
I can sit and watch Youtube videos until my eyes bleed, of slot players in Vegas where is appears to be no limit on the max bet if you have the right machine.
So can anyone in the know, explain the rational behind our laws here. Of all the places, I would have thought that a fixed bricks casino would have options that a bookmaker can only dream of. It appears to be the opposite.
My second question is,
How do we all feel about the reoccurring trend (without a doubt for me) where you play online with a bonus of some sort, and you get to the 75% complete (of the wager requirement) and its a constant downhill, busting out with minimal wager still to go.
My most recent example is this:
£50 deposit that is matched with a £3k wager term, normal enough. I play and play, I hit a high of £550 and a low of £124 ish until I have maybe £670 left to wager with a balance of £225 ish. From this point onwards it is straight downhill to zero, finishing with about £67 to wager.
Does this happen to everyone else? Its almost like a button it pressed that says "take it all".
Now obviously I win with some deposit bonuses and make cashouts, but honestly for me, this is where I have hit big enough early or mid term and "rode" the downward trend.
However its not like the downward has not been present before as my previous example shows a huge swing.
To me it is almost a given that I will see a fraction of the balance I have with 25% left to wager than I hope for, I am not naive to the fact that variance will take some of the balance but nearly every time, the RTP literally goess through the floor.
This is where I need to number's bods to step in please and tell me is it statistically more likely to to face a downward trend based on the previous amount of wager that has been played?
I know people will say that "I have won big in the last few spins of a huge wager" and so have I, Ruby Slippers 4 wild bubbles and a 5th wild x 2 comes to mind as my one and only.
I'm intrigued by all of your views and please any none UK players that want to contribute to the 2nd question, fire away.
Thanks in advance for your opinions and input.
So I have taken a bit of time off from actually playing my favourite slots and have looked more into the numbers and maths behind it, this is where I would like some input please.
Firstly,
I can walk into a UK High Street bookmakers and spin £100 inn seconds on a FOBy Roulette Machine.
How come I can, as we speak, only bet £5 a spin in a mainland casino on a slot machine and potentially win £10k (recent upgrade from £2 max bet for a jackpot of £4k)?
Now I know they are different games, and the max spin I game do on a bookmakers slots is £2, but the figures baffle me in terms of the relativity of it all.
I can sit and watch Youtube videos until my eyes bleed, of slot players in Vegas where is appears to be no limit on the max bet if you have the right machine.
So can anyone in the know, explain the rational behind our laws here. Of all the places, I would have thought that a fixed bricks casino would have options that a bookmaker can only dream of. It appears to be the opposite.
My second question is,
How do we all feel about the reoccurring trend (without a doubt for me) where you play online with a bonus of some sort, and you get to the 75% complete (of the wager requirement) and its a constant downhill, busting out with minimal wager still to go.
My most recent example is this:
£50 deposit that is matched with a £3k wager term, normal enough. I play and play, I hit a high of £550 and a low of £124 ish until I have maybe £670 left to wager with a balance of £225 ish. From this point onwards it is straight downhill to zero, finishing with about £67 to wager.
Does this happen to everyone else? Its almost like a button it pressed that says "take it all".
Now obviously I win with some deposit bonuses and make cashouts, but honestly for me, this is where I have hit big enough early or mid term and "rode" the downward trend.
However its not like the downward has not been present before as my previous example shows a huge swing.
To me it is almost a given that I will see a fraction of the balance I have with 25% left to wager than I hope for, I am not naive to the fact that variance will take some of the balance but nearly every time, the RTP literally goess through the floor.
This is where I need to number's bods to step in please and tell me is it statistically more likely to to face a downward trend based on the previous amount of wager that has been played?
I know people will say that "I have won big in the last few spins of a huge wager" and so have I, Ruby Slippers 4 wild bubbles and a 5th wild x 2 comes to mind as my one and only.
I'm intrigued by all of your views and please any none UK players that want to contribute to the 2nd question, fire away.
Thanks in advance for your opinions and input.