That would be the only thing which would make it plausible. There are several outcomes based on splitting, doubling, etc., and there's no way of knowing whether they consider the original bet part of the win, i.e., did he bet £6975 and win without a blackjack, did he bet £3487.50 and win without a blackjack, did he bet £2790 and get a blackjack, or did he bet £4650 and get a blackjack? Or was their splitting involved? Probably not, since they claim it was from a single hand (although even that might not necessarily mean that the hand wasn't split one or more times).
Whatever allegedely happened, the bet amounts required to make it are pretty strange.




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