Help calculating odds! Roulette

**El Helado Patat** · 17th February 2008, 05:09 PM

Tssup.

I just lost 490$ wagering exactly $2000 on french roulette (la partage-rule) house advantage of 1.35% with 100x 20$ bets on a microgaming casino. How big are the odds of that?

**YuraK** · 17th February 2008, 10:09 PM

It depends on bets you've made. Less payout - bigger odds. For 1:1 bets I've got about 2% odds.

**uungy** · 17th February 2008, 10:26 PM

It depends what you were betting on. thw 1.35% if I am not mistaken is only of you bet on red/black, as half wager is returned on 0. Betting on a straight number, I imagine the odds are the same at about 2.8%.

What were you betting on?

**Jufo** · 17th February 2008, 11:53 PM

Why are you asking what he was betting on? He already told that he made 100 Even money bets.

I put your results on a probability simulator (Gambler's odds) and I get 1.0195 % chance of losing 490$ or more.

**uungy** · 18th February 2008, 02:40 AM

Originally Posted by Jufo

Why are you asking what he was betting on? He already told that he made 100 Even money bets.

I put your results on a probability simulator (Gambler's odds) and I get 1.0195 % chance of losing 490$ or more.

Firstly no reason to be so vicious! I am only trying to help here!

Secondly where do you see the words "even money bets"? unless you know from elsewhere that,

Originally Posted by El Helado Patat

Tssup.

I just lost 490$ wagering exactly $2000 on french roulette (la partage-rule) house advantage of 1.35% with 100x 20$ bets on a microgaming casino. How big are the odds of that?

I cant guess such things, especially if you deposit $490, and are playing $20 a hand, it actually is impossible to bet exactly $2000, as $490/20 equals to 24.5 hands, so not every hand could be $20, thats how I figured my reasoning out FYI

So back to my original Q. What were you betting on?

**slafs** · 18th February 2008, 08:23 AM

Actually, if he was placing the same $20 bet every time, it had to be an even money bet, since he lost $490. The uneven result comes because of an odd occurence (1,3,5,..) of 0, giving him half his bet back on even money bets due to the la partage-rule.

Then again, there's always the possibility of betting on more than one thing at the time in roulette..

**Jufo** · 18th February 2008, 09:00 PM

Sorry, didn't mean to be vicious but I thought it was general knowledge that La-Partage applies to Even money bets only. So

Even money bet = La-Partage rule = 1.35% House edge

All other bets = 2.70% house edge

The fact he lost 490$ means just that he hit 0 which returns 10$ on a 20$ bet.