I've seen alot more people playing bj online lately, and thus alot more questions about whether they are getting a fair game or not. I'm not sure myself about some of these casinos, there are only a few that I think are really a random game, and some that I'm sure aren't (like g-fed).
Many times we'll see someone ask the odds of the dealer pulling off some miracle hands x number of times in a row (like multiple bj) and the odds are astronomical making one believe that it must be a rigged game. But is it?
Very few online casinos actually deal into the shoe like is done in land based multi-deck games. Almost all of them reshuffle their 6 or 8 decks before each and every hand. I'm wondering if some of the statisticians (like GrandMaster for instance) can comment on this?
Since each hand is really a completely independent occurrence, like a slot machine or vp game, do the stats really hold up when we talk about the dealer getting 4 or 5 bjs in a row and that being some once in a lifetime event. Remember that each hand has no relation to the one before it or the one following it in this scenario. If it were dealt from the same shoe, I'd say that the odds were much longer, but these are 4 or 5 independent, freshly shuffled, off the top of the shoe hands.
Is the house edge really higher than we think it should be because each hand is from a new shoe? I tend to think it is, but don't know the statistical calculations to apply to show one way or the other. Hopefully someone (GM?) can address this.
Many times we'll see someone ask the odds of the dealer pulling off some miracle hands x number of times in a row (like multiple bj) and the odds are astronomical making one believe that it must be a rigged game. But is it?
Very few online casinos actually deal into the shoe like is done in land based multi-deck games. Almost all of them reshuffle their 6 or 8 decks before each and every hand. I'm wondering if some of the statisticians (like GrandMaster for instance) can comment on this?
Since each hand is really a completely independent occurrence, like a slot machine or vp game, do the stats really hold up when we talk about the dealer getting 4 or 5 bjs in a row and that being some once in a lifetime event. Remember that each hand has no relation to the one before it or the one following it in this scenario. If it were dealt from the same shoe, I'd say that the odds were much longer, but these are 4 or 5 independent, freshly shuffled, off the top of the shoe hands.
Is the house edge really higher than we think it should be because each hand is from a new shoe? I tend to think it is, but don't know the statistical calculations to apply to show one way or the other. Hopefully someone (GM?) can address this.