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Old 6th May 2006, 05:10 PM
tony_k tony_k is offline
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assumption

I was thinking how it could happen. Let's say they do "second deal". I mean if player has a winning hand, the house will deal a "second card" as a replacement. It's much easier than manipulating RNG.

normal win/tie/lose ratio is 0.46154/0.07692/0.46154.
I figured win/tie/lose ratio on "second deal" as 0.29586/0.11243/059172.
win/lose ratio is almost 1:2 and tie ratio is bigger than normal under this story.

It's an only assumption but it is pretty much fitted to sample provided by house, isn't it?
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