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Old 3rd May 2006, 03:29 PM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Casinomeister
This just in from English Harbour:
In theory, the number of Wins versus the number of losses and (excluding ties) will converge to 50% over a sample set that is large enough. .
Actually #wins/#losses SHOULD converge to 100%!!!
What we saw was actually that it did converge to something 50%!



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